AFTER 2 YEARS OF INVESTIGATING TRUMP FOR COLLUDING WITH RUSSIANS, PULLING EVERY STRING THEY COULD FIND TO LOCATE THE REASON FOR HILLARY-FAIL, WE'RE ACTUALLY TALKING ABOUT GIVING ILLEGAL RESIDENTS THE RIGHT TO VOTE IN FEDERAL ELECTIONS??
Maybe I'm splitting hairs but how on God's blue golf-ball is this possible in light of their massive apopletic outrage over the mere possibility that "RUSSIANS" somehow may have indirectly influenced the outcome of the last election? How do you square this with the newborn desire to let non-citizens of the USA actually physically participate in the election of the new president?
Wouldn't this mean: a) that an aircraft carrier full of Russian marines could enter the states on election day and cast their vote for Trump because "freedom" or b) that a neck-bearded Canadian wood-cutter could walk into a polling station in Seattle and vote for Trump because reasons?
c) or that good ol' shirtless Vlad himself would be free to board his personal jet and participate too, on camera and in real time?
What are we talking about here? Should any of the above happen and if the democrats complain that only hispanic illegals qualify for the exciting new, illegal vote, how wouldnt this violate their rabid desire for "equality" ?
Maybe I'm getting old but this is all sooo confusing!!